If language is synonymous with society, and without a shared language, a society cannot exist, then would that mean that those that cannot communicate within the shared language are not participating in that society?
If someone goes deaf and can only communicate in sign language, would that mean that they are no longer able to participate in the same society as those that speak in a shared auditory language?
Suggesting that language is a precondition for the emergence of a society puts the cart before the horse. A shared language is the product of a society, not the precursor to a society. Man cannot devise language alone. Therefore, in order for a shared language to be established, there must be some integration, cooperation and the formation of social ties. This means that for a shared language to emerge, there must have already been a society established.